Question Papers

ICICI Bank Probationary Officers Sample Paper 2
Aptitude Question Paper (2003)
Date: Duration: 90 minutes Max. Marks:
Instructions: 1) All the questions are compulsory.
1. Figures to the right indicate the marks for each question of that section.
2. Answer the questions by drawing a circle around the option that you think is correct
I. English Language Ability :
A. Part I [1 x 7 = 7 Marks]
Questions 1-7 are incomplete sentences. Beneath each sentence you will see four words or phrases, marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). Choose the one word or phrase that best completes the sentence.
1. After the funeral, the residents of the apartment building __________
a. sent faithfully flowers all weeks to the cemetery.
b. sent to the cemetery each week flowers faithfully.
c. sent flowers faithfully to the cemetery each week.
d. sent each week faithfully to the cemetery flowers.
2. Because the first pair of pants did not fit properly, he asked for ________
a. another pants
b. others pants
c. the others ones
d. another pair
3. The committee has met and _________
a. they have reached a decision
b. it has formulated themselves some opinions
c. its decision was reached at
d. it has reached a decision
4. Alfred Adams has not ________
a. lived lonelynessly in times previous
b. never before lived sole
c. ever lived alone before
d. before lived without the company of his friends
5. John’s score on the test is the highest in the class; ___________
a. he should study last night
b. he should have studied last night
c. he must have studied last night
d. he must had to study last night
6. Henry will not be able to attend the meeting tonight because _________
a. he must to teach a class
b. he will be teaching a class
c. of he will teach a class
d. he will have teaching a class
7. Having been served lunch, __________
a. the problem was discussed by the members of the committee
b. the committee members discussed the problem
c. it was discussed by the committee members the problem
d. a discussion of the problem was made by the members of the committee
A.
Part II [1 x 7 = 7 Marks]
In question 8-14, each sentence has four underlined words or phrases. The four underlined parts of the sentence are marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Identify the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed in order for the sentence to be correct.
1. The main office of the factory can be found in Maple Street in New York City.
a. the main
b. be found
c. in
d. in
2. Because there are less members present tonight than there were last night, we must wait until the next meeting to vote.
a. less
b. than
c. were
d. to vote
3. David is particularly fond of cooking, and he often cooks really delicious meals.
a. particularly
b. fond of
c. often cooks
d. really
4. The progress made in space travel for the early 1960s is remarkable.
a. progress
b. made
c. in space
d. for
5. Sandra has not rarely missed a play or concert since she was seventeen years old.
a. not rarely
b. a play
c. since
d. was seventeen years old
6. The governor has not decided how to deal with the new problems already.
a. The
b. has
c. how to deal with
d. already
7. There was a very interesting news on the radio this morning about the earthquake in Italy.
a. there was
b. a
c. on the
d. about
A.
B. Part III [1 x 6 = 6 Marks]
In question 15-20, the given pair of words contains a specific relationship to each other. Select the best pair of choices which expresses the same relationship as the given.
1. PROCRASTINATOR : DELAY ::
a. flatterer : undermine
b. genius : creativity
c. tyrant : influence
d. general : salute
2. APIARY : BEE ::
a. mountain : skier
b. airport : flight
c. schedule : event
d. stable : horse
3. OVATION : APPLAUSE ::
a. grief : loss
b. rout : defeat
c. triumph : failure
d. pathway : ruin
4. DOLPHIN : FLIPPER ::
a. insect : antenna
b. burglar : mask
c. gull : wing
d. plane : radar
5. WATERTIGHT : MOISTURE ::
a. hermetic : air
b. combatant : strife
c. somnolent : boredom
d. ocean : shore
6. PLAYWRIGHT : SCRIPT ::
a. composer : score
b. physician : diagnosis
c. verse : poet
d. king : parliament
A. Part IV [1 x 5 = 5 Marks]
In question 21-25, choose the best word, which is most opposite in the meaning to the given word.
1. LUCID
a. underlying
b. complex
c. luxurious
d. tight
2. LATITUDE
a. frenzy
b. attitude
c. altitude
d. restriction
3. GRATUITOUS
a. Noticeable
b. Useful
c. Needful
d. Original
4. MERITORIOUS
a. Simple
b. Inferior
c. Unrewarding
d. Young
5. VOUCHSAFE
a. steal
b. postpone
c. refuse
d. injure
A. Passage Comprehension [1 x 7 = 7 Marks]
Line 1. A recent investigation by scientists at the U.S. Geological Survey shows that strange animal behavior might help predict earthquakes. Investigators found such occurrences within a ten-kilometer radius of the epicenter of a fairly recent quake. Some birds screeched and flew about wildly; dogs yelped and ran around uncontrollably.
Line 5. Scientists believe that animals can perceive environmental changes several hours or even days before the mishaps. Animals were notes as being restless for several weeks before a Tashkent, Uzbekistan, earthquake. An hour before the disaster, domestic animals refused to go indoors and dogs howled and barked furiously. In 1960, an earthquake struck Agadir in Morocco. Survivors recall that stray animals, including dogs, were seen streaming out of town before the earthquake. In a safari zoo near San Francisco, llamas would not eat the evening before a 1979 quake, and they ran around wildly all night.
Line 12. Unusual animal behavior preceding earthquakes has been noted for centuries. British Admiral Robert Fitzroy reported huge flocks of screaming seabirds over Conception, Chile, in 1835. An hour and half later, dogs were seen fleeing, and ten minutes later the town was destroyed. Similar stories of chickens running around in apparent states of panic, horses trembling and dogs barking incessantly were recorded throughout the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries by survivors of earthquake destruction in India, Yugoslavia, Peru, Mexico and the Unites States.
Line 18. In 1976, after monitoring bizarre animal behavior, the Chinese predicted a devastating earthquake. Although hundreds of thousand of people were killed, the government was able to evacuate millions of others people and thus keep the death toll at a lower level.
1. What prediction may be made by observing animal behavior?
a. An impending earthquake
b. The number of people who will die
c. The ten-kilometer radium from the epicenter
d. The fact that an earthquake has occurred.
2. The author implies that animals are aware of an impending earthquake because
a. Of their intelligence
b. They have certain instinctive abilities to perceive that human do not possess
c. They are generally closer to the epicenter than the human observers
d. They react to other animal behaviors
3. The word “evacuate” in line 20 closest in meaning to
a. remove
b. exile
c. Destroy
d. emaciate
4. All of the following statement are true EXCEPT
a. some animals may be able to sense an approaching earthquake
b. by observing animal behavior scientist perhaps can predict earthquakes
c. the Chines have successfully predicted an earthquake and saved may lives
d. only dogs and horses seem to possess the special perception that allows them to predict earthquakes
5. In line 3 the word ” epicenter” is nearest in meaning to
a. stratosphere
b. Contour
c. Periphery
d. Core
6. The passage implies that if scientist can accurately predict earthquakes there will be
a. fewer animal going crazy
b. a lower death rate
c. fewer people evacuated
d. fewer environmental changes
7. In line 18 “devastating” means most nearly the same as
a. destructive
b. voracious
c. intense
d. forthcoming
I. Logical and Analytical Reasoning Ability:
A. Part I : Logical Reasoning Ability [1 x 9 = 9 Marks]
For Question 1-5 : Six actors – Bob, Carol, Dave. Ed, Frank, and Grace – are auditioning for a part in an off-Broadway play. The auditions for a part in an off-Broadway play. The auditions will take place over four consecutive days, starting on a Thursday. Each actor will have one audition. The days on which the different actors will audition must conform to the following conditions :
At least one audition will take place on any day.
No more than two auditions will take place on any day
No more than 3 auditions will take place on any two consecutive days
Bob’s audition must take place on Saturday
Carol’s audition must take place on the same day as another audition
Frank’s audition must take place on a day before grace’s audition
Dave’s audition must take place on a day after Ed’s audition
1. if only one audition takes place on Thursday, which actor could have that audition
a. Bob
b. Carol
c. Dave
d. Frank
e. Grace
2. If Bob’s and frank’s auditions are on the same day, which of the following must be true
a. Dave’s audition will take place on Thursday
b. Dave’s audition will take place on Friday
c. Grace’s audition will take place on Thursday
d. Carol’s audition will take place on Sunday
e. Ed’s audition will take place on Sunday
3. If the director decides to two hold the auditions on Thursday and two on Sunday, how many actors would be eligible to audition on Friday
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5
4. If Ed and Grace have their auditions on the same day, which of the following must be true?
a. Ed’s audition will take place on Thursday
b. Frank’s audition will take place on Thursday
c. Carol’s audition will take place on Saturday
d. Grace’s audition will take place on Saturday
e. Carol’s audition will take place on Sunday
5. If Ed’s audition is on Saturday, which of the following actors cannot audition on the same day as any other actor?
a. Bob
b. Carol
c. Ed
d. Frank
e. Grace
For Question 6-9 : As part of their sports physicals, seven collegiate athletes – F, G, H, I, J, K & L – are being weighed. In announcing the results of the physical exams, the coach has given the following information:
None of the athletes is exactly the same weight as another athlete
K is heavier than L, but lighter than H
I is heavier than J
Both F and G are heavier than H.
6. Each of the following could be true EXCEPT
a. F is the heaviest
b. G is the heaviest
c. I is the heaviest
d. More than three athletes are heavier than K
e. More than three athletes are lighter than K
7. Which of the following, if true, would be sufficient to determine which athlete is the lightest?
a. I is the heaviest
b. I is lighter than K
c. K is heavier than J
d. J is heavier than K
e. Exactly five students are lighter than F
8. If J is heavier than F, how many different rankings, by weight, of the athletes are possible?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 4
d. 6
e. 8
9. If H is heavier than I, which of the following CANNOT be true?
a. I’s weight is equal to the average of F’s weight and G’s weight
b. I’s weight is equal to the average of K’s weight and L’s weight
c. J’s weight is equal to the average of K’s weight and L’s weight
d. J is the second lightest
e. J is the lightest
A. Part II : Logical Reasoning Questions [2 x 8 = 16 Marks]
Select the best answer for each of the following questions.
1. Someone wishes to deduce the conclusion that there are at least two men in Calcutta who have exactly the same number of hair on their heads. He begins with a premise that there are more men in Calcutta than there are hair on the head of any person in the entire world(whether men or women).
The desired conclusion can be validly deduced
a. From the original premise just as it stands
b. If we add a premise that no man in Calcutta is completely bald, but not from the original premise as it stands.
c. If we add the premise that there are at least as many men in Calcutta as women, but not from the original premise as it stands.
d. Only if we add the premise that no man in Calcutta is completely bald, but not from the premise as it exactly stands.
e. Only if we add the premise that there are at least as many men in Calcutta as women, but not from the original premise as it stands.
2. Department stores range from two to eight floors in height .If a store has more than three floors, it has an elevator.
If the statements above are true, which of the following must also be true?
a. Second floors do not have elevators
b. Seventh floors have elevators
c. Only floors above the third floors have elevators
d. All floors may be reached by elevators
e. Some two-floor department stores do not have elevators
1. A valid argument is often defined as one in which it is not possible for all the premises to be true and the conclusion false. A circular argument is sometimes defined as one on which one of the premises is identical to the conclusion.
From these definitions we can infer that…
a. Every circular argument is valid
b. Every argument is circular.
c. No circular argument is valid
d. Some circular arguments are valid, and some are not.
e. Some circular arguments are not valid, and some valid arguments are not circular.
Questions 13 and 14 refer to the following scenario:
In a horse race involving six horses, three of the entries were Bag O’Bones, Cold Molasses, and Three-Leg Charlie. All six horses finished, one after the other.
1. No horse finished ahead of Cold Molasses, and no horse finished behind Bag O’Bones. Also, no horse finished between Cold Molasses and Three-Leg Charlie. Therefore,
a. Cold Molasses finished second or third.
b. Bag O’Bones came in fourth or better.
c. Three-Leg Charlie finished second or third.
d. Three-Leg Charlie may have finished first, but atleast he did not finish last.
e. Bag O’Bones finished ahead of Cold Molasses.
1. Four horses finished between Bag O’Bones and Cold Molasses. Therefore,
a. Cold Molasses finished last.
b. Bag O’Bones finished second or third.
c. Bag O’Bones finished fifth.
d. Three-Leg Charlie did not finish last.
e. Either Bag O’Bones finished fifth, or Three-Leg Charlie came in third.
1. Administrators and executives are members of the most stable occupation.
The stability mentioned in the above statement could be dependent on each of the following factors except
a. Training and skills.
b. Nature of the occupation.
c. Status
d. Relatively high income
e. Rate of turnover
1. A recent newspaper feature story listed several factors, as “predictors” of likelihood of premature death .Two of these factors were a sedentary life style without regular physical exercise, and sleeping more than 12 hours daily.
If a person were to respond to this news by both joining as an exercise club and buying an alarm clock, that person would probably be
a. Mistaking an explanation for an argument
b. Mistaking an argument for an explanation
c. Mistaking a premise for a conclusion
d. Mistaking a cause for an indicator
e. Mistaking an indicator by a cause
1. Ellen : “All three of Shirley’s children have the measles!”
Lois: “As a matter of fact, all three of Shirley’s children are fine!”
Accepting the assumption that nobody who has measles is fine, which of the following is true about this exchange?
a. It is possible that both Ellen and Lois are right about Shirley’s children.
b. It is possible that both Ellen and Lois are mistaken about Shirley’s children.
c. Either Ellen is right about Shirley’s children, or Lois is right about them, but they are not both right.
d. Ellen and Lois might be both right about Shirley’s children, and they might both be wrong about them.

e. None of these alternatives correctly identifies the possibilities for this scenario.
I. Problem Solving Ability
A. Part I : Problem Solving Ability [1 x 25 = 25 Marks]
1. A truck departed from Newton at 11:53a.m. and arrived in Far City, 240 miles away, at 4:41 p.m. on the same day. What was the approximate average speed of the truck on this trip?
a. 16/1,200 MPH
b. 40/288 MPH
c. 1,494/240 MPH
d. 50 MPH
1. If m,n,o and p are real numbers, each of the following expressions equals m(nop) EXCEPT
a. (op)(mn)
b. ponm
c. (mn)(mo)(mp)
d. (mp)(no)
1. If the ratio of women to men in a meeting is 4 to 1, what percent of the persons in the meeting are men?
a. 20%
b. 25%
c. 33 1/3%
d. 80%
1. Tom received 89, 94, 86, and 96 on the first algebra tests. What grade must he receive on his last test to have an average of 92?
a. 92
b. 94
c. 91
d. 95
1. If the measures of the three angles of a triangle are (3x + 15), (5x – 15), and (2x + 30), what is the measure of each angle?
a. 75
b. 60
c. 45
d. 25
1. Which of the following equations can be used to find a number x, if the difference between the square of this number and 21 is the same as the product of 4 times the number?
a. x – 21 = 4x
b. x2- 21 = 4x
c. x2 = 21-4x
d. x + 4×2=21
1. Emile receives a flat weekly salary of Rs.240 plus 12% commission of the total volume of all sales he makes. What must his rupees volume be in a week if he is to make a total weekly of Rs.540?
a. Rs.2,880
b. Rs.3,600
c. Rs.6,480
d. Rs.2,500
1. A and B undertake to do a work for Rs.56. A can do it alone in 7 days and B in 8 days. If with the assistance of a boy they finish the work in 3 days then the boy gets Rs.–
a. 11
b. 45
c. 43
d. 21
1. A postal truck leaves its station and heads for Chicago, averaging 40mph. An error in the mailing schedule is spotted and 24 minutes after the truck leaves, a car is sent to overtake the truck. If the car averages 50mph, how long will it take to catch the postal truck?
a. 1.6 hours
b. 3 hours
c. 2 hours
d. 1.5 hours
1. In a class of 40 students, 30 speak French and 20 speak German. What is the lowest possible number of students who speak both languages?
a. 5
b. 20
c. 15
d. 10
1. The value of B in the equation a = (h/2)(B+b) is
a. (2a – b)/h
b. 2h/a – b
c. 2a – b
d. 2a/h – b
1.
2. The perimeter of a square inscribed in the circumference of radius R is
a. 4R
b. 8R
c. 2R(2)1/2
d. 4R(2)1/2
1. If R,S, and Q can wallpaper a house in 8 hours and R and S can do it in 12 hours, how long will it take Q alone to wallpaper the house ?
a. 12 hours
b. 24 hours
c. 8 hours
d. 20 hours
1. An old picture has dimensions 33 inches by 24 inches. What one length must be cut from each dimension so that the ratio of the shorter side to the longer side is 2:3?
a. 2 inches
b. 6 inches
c. 9 inches
d. 10 1/2 inches
1. In a group of 30 people the average height is 6 feet and 2 inches. Therefore, we can assume that
1. everyone is 6ft and 2 inches
2. most of the people are 6ft and 2 inches.
3. not all could be taller than 6ft and 2 inches.
a. 2 only
b. 3 only
c. 1 and 2 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
1. One wall being made entirely of bricks is 40% built. If we need 1,200 more bricks to complete the wall, how many bricks will the wall have ?
a. 1,500
b. 1,800
c. 2,000
d. 2,400
1. In a College Bookstore where all books are the same price, a + b books are selling for Rs.1,000. Myron buys 12 books and for each one has a discount of Rs.1. How much does Myron need to pay ?
a. [(a + b) - 1] x 12
b. [(a + b)/1000 - 1] x 12
c. [(1000/(a + b)) - 1] x 12
d. [a + b] x 1
1. A square is inscribed in a circle of area 18p. What is the length of a side of the square ?
a. 6
b. 3
c. 3(2)1/2
d. 6(2)1/2
1. A box contains 6 red marbles and 4 blue marbles. What is the probability that if 2 marbles are simultaneously drawn from the box, both will be red ?
a. 2/3
b. 1/3
c. 1/2
d. 1/5
1. If it is 250 kms from Delhi to Chandigarh and 120 kms from Delhi to Jaipur, what percentage of the distance from Delhi to Chandigarh is the distance from Delhi to Jaipur?
a. 12
b. 24
c. 36
d. 48
1. A car goes 15 kms on a litre of petrol. When it is driven at 60 kms per hour it only goes 80% as far. How many litres of petrol will it take to travel 120 kms driving at 60 kms per hour?
a. 2
b. 6.4
c. 8
d. 9.6
1. The solution of the equation 4 – 5(2y + 4) = 4 is
a. 1.-2/5
b. 8
c. 4
d. -2
1. I went to Lucky Duck Casino and in the first game I lost one-third of my money, in the second game I lost half of the rest. If I still have Rs.1,000, how much money did I have when I arrived at the Casino?
a. Rs.1,000
b. Rs.2,000
c. Rs.3,000
d. Rs.6,000
e.
1. For each Rupee spent by the sales department, the research department spends 20 paise. For every Rs. 4 spent by the research department, the packing department spends Rs.1.50. The triple ratio of the money spent by the sales department to the money spent by the research department to the money spent by the packing department can be expressed as
a. 40 : 8 : 3
b. 20 : 4 : 1
c. 8 : 4 : 1
d. 1 : 1 : 5
e. 2 : 1 : 5
1. From the beginning to the end of 1996, the price of a rare book rose 20 percent. In 1997, it dropped 25 percent. In 1998, it rose 20 percent. What percent of 1996`s starting price is 1998`s starting price?
a. 90
b. 95
c. 100
d. 108

Bank Of India (BOI) General Banking Officer
General Awareness Solved Paper Year 2010
1. The President of the Palestine recently emphasized that his country will not resume peace talks until Israel fully halts settlement building in the—
(A) West Bank
(B) Haifa
(C) Gaza
(D) Tel-Aviv-Yafo
(E) Jerusalem
Ans : (A)

2. All the major world leaders gathered in Berlin in Nov. 2009 to mark the 20th anniversary of—
(A) European Union
(B) NATO
(C) Fall of Berlin Wall
(D) G-20
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

3. Now almost all major newspaper journals and magazines are printing research reports giving the analysis and/or the causes of the sub-prime crisis which gripped America and the world a few months back. Which of the following was/were amongst the common cause(s) of the same ?
(They were present in almost all the economies)
(1) The problem was that investors erroneously believed property prices were quite predictable and built a whole edifice of financial planning on the back of the American housing market.
(2) Credit rating agencies all over the world were not equipped to forecast the effect of sub-prime crisis on world economy. Agencies were over-confident and did not react in time.
(3) Neither USA nor other countries took a note of the crisis in time. In fact they ignored it for quite some time.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) Only 1 and 2
Ans : (A)

4. If you see a big hoarding at a prominent public place, the punch line of which says ‘We All Were Born Free’; ‘We All Have Equal Rights’, in all probability, the hoarding is put up by—
(A) National Commission for Farmers
(B) National Human Rights Commission
(C) Directorate of Income Tax
(D) Ministry of Foreign Affairs
(E) Union Public Service Commission
Ans : (B)

5. Nowadays we frequently read news items about ‘Derivatives’ as used in the world of finance and money market. Which of the following statement(s) correctly describes what a derivative is and how it affects money/finance markets ?
(1) Derivatives enable individuals and companies to insure themselves against financial risk.
(2) Derivatives are like fixed deposits in a bank and are the safest way to invest one’s idle money lying in a bank.
(3) Derivatives are the financial instruments which were used in India even during the British Raj.
(A) Only 3
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 1
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

6. Many a time we read in the newspapers that RBI has changed or revised a particular ratio/rate by a few basis points. What is basis point ?
(A) Ten per cent of one hundredth point
(B) One hundredth of 1%
(C) One hundredth of 10%
(D) Ten per cent of 1000
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

7. Which of the following issues cannot come under the purview of the functioning of the Human Rights Commission of a country ?
(A) Racial Discrimination
(B) Treatment to Prisoners of War
(C) Human Trafficking
(D) Child Abuse
(E) Climate Migration
Ans : (E)

8. A prominent international weekly sometime ago printed a caption on its cover page which read ‘Brazil Takes Off’. Other major newspapers/magazines also printed similar stories/articles in their publications at that time. Why have magazines/newspapers decided to talk about Brazil these days ?
(1) All major economies of the world have been taking time to recover from the recession but Brazil was one of those which was ‘Last in and First out’.
(2) Brazil is a member of BRIC but unlike China it is a democracy, unlike India, it has no hostile neighbours, no insurgents and unlike Russia it exports more oil and arms and treats foreign investors with more respect.
(3) Brazil is the world’s second largest booming economy.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) Only 1 and 2
Ans : (A)

9. Which of the following countries has conferred the honour of ‘Legion d’ honneur’ on Bharat Ratna Lata Mangeshkar ?
(A) Germany
(B) Norway
(C) Japan
(D) U.K.
(E) France
Ans : (E)

10. Expand the term NREGA—
(A) National Rural Employment Guarantee Agency
(B) National Rural Electrification Governing Agency
(C) National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
(D) New Rural Employment Guarantee Agency
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

11. The Rajya Sabha has recently cleared the new poll bill. Which one of the following amendment(s) is/are made in this bill ?
It has proposed -
(A) Increasing the security deposits to more than double
(B) Restricting the publication of exit polls
(C) Ensuring speedy disposal of electoral disputes
(D) Only (A) and (B)
(E) All (A), (B) and (C)
Ans : (D)

12. The market in which long term securities such as stocks and bonds are bought and sold is commonly known as—
(A) Commodities Exchange
(B) Capital Market
(C) Bull Market
(D) Bullion Market
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

13. Which one of the following was India’s top destination for exports during 2009 ?
(A) UAE
(B) USA
(C) Russia
(D) China
(E) Bangladesh
Ans : (A)

14. Which one of the following will be the first High Court in India, to implement the concept of ‘ecourts’ ?
(A) Delhi
(B) A.P.
(C) Chennai
(D) Kolkata
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

15. Amongst the following, which one of the following sectors provides the highest contribution in Industrial Production Index ?
(A) Crude Oil
(B) Petro Refinery Products
(C) Electricity
(D) Coal
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

16. Amongst the following sectors, which sector/segment has shown the highest per cent growth in the current fiscal ?
(A) Mining
(B) Manufacturing
(C) Electricity, gas and water supply
(D) Banking and Finance
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

17. As per the reports published in newspapers, India purchased around 200 tonnes of gold (almost half the quantity of gold put up for sale) in Sept. 2009. India purchased this gold from which of the following organizations ?
(A) World Bank
(B) Asian Development Bank
(C) International Monetary Fund
(D) International Gold Council
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

18. World Trade Organisation (WTO)’s ministerial meeting was organized in which of the following cities recently ?
(A) Geneva
(B) Washington
(C) Paris
(D) Port of Spain
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

19. In which one of the following countries, was the recent Commonwealth Meet (CHOGAM) held ?
(A) Trinidad
(B) Canada
(C) Australia
(D) Jamaica
(E) U.K.
Ans : (A)

20. Which of the following decisions taken by the RBI will promote the concept of financial inclusion in the country ?
(A) To appoint some additional entities as business correspondents
(B) To collect reasonable service charges from the customer in a transparent manner for providing the services.
(C) To ask the banks to open at least 50 new accounts daily in non serviced areas.
(D) Only (A) and (B)
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

21. For recapitalization of Public Sector Banks, the World Bank has decided to provide funds to India. These funds will be made available in the form of—
(A) Soft Loan
(B) Term Loan
(C) Emergency aid
(D) Grants
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

22. Citizens of which one of he following age-groups (in years) are covered under the New Pension System (NPS) ?
(A) 18–50
(B) 21–55
(C) 25–55
(D) 18–60
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

23. Which one of the following is the objective of the flagship scheme ‘Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana’ (RSBY) ?
(A) To provide life insurance cover to rural households
(B) To provide health insurance cover to rural households
(C) To provide both life and health insurance cover to rural household
(D) To provide life and health insurance covers only to people living below poverty line
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

24. Which one of the following had set up the N. R. Narayana Murthy Committee on issues relating to Corporate Governance ?
(A) SEBI
(B) RBI
(C) CII
(D) Ministry of Finance, GOI
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

25. The proceeds of the disinvestment of profitable public sector units will be used for which of the following purposes ?
(A) Expansion of existing capacity of PSEs
(B) Modernisation of PSEs
(C) Opening of new PSEs
(D) Meeting the expenditure for various social sector schemes
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

26. Which one of the following is the target fixed for fiscal deficit in the year 2010-2011 ?
(A) 3•5%
(B) 4•0%
(C) 5•5%
(D) 5•0%
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

27. Which one of the following companies is the largest producer of natural gas in the country ?
(A) ONGC
(B) OIL
(C) Cairn India
(D) RIL
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

28. Which one of the following states has sought a package of Rs. 500 crores ($ 100 million) for its Rural Poverty Reduction Programme ?
(A) M.P.
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) A.P.
(D) Karnataka
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

29. Chinese objections have stalled the road work at the village of Demchok, on the Indian side of the line of control. In which one of the following states is this village located ?
(A) Arunachal Pradesh
(B) Assam
(C) Himachal Pradesh
(D) Rajasthan
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

30. Constitutionally, which one of the following can levy Service Tax ?
(A) Union Govt. only
(B) State Govt. only
(C) Union Territory Govt. only
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

31. In the proposed low cost pension scheme, which one of the following has been made responsible for maintaining of the records of pension account of an individual ?
(A) SIDBI
(B) National Securities Depositories Ltd. (NSDL)
(C) Stock Holding Corporation of India
(D) RBI
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

32. Which one of the following is/are implication(s) of large inflow of foreign exchange into the country ?
1. It makes monetary management difficult for RBI.
2. It creates money supply, asset bubbles and inflation.
3. It weakens the competitiveness of Indian exports.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 1 and 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (B)

33. The Central Banks of which one of the following countries has offered $ 115 billion emergency credit to support its economy hit by falling prices and also to strengthen its currency ?
(A) South Korea
(B) Japan
(C) U.K.
(D) USA
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

34. Which of the following books is written by Chetan Bhagat ?
(A) The Golden Gate
(B) A House for Mr. Biswas
(C) 2 States
(D) White Tiger
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

35. NTPC Ltd. is in the process of exploring opportunities to source coal from overseas. In which one of the following countries has the NTPC identified two new coal mines ?
(A) Bhutan
(B) Australia
(C) South Korea
(D) Indonesia
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

36. Which of the following organizations has raised its loan amount to India to make it US $ 7 billion in 2009-10 fiscal ?
(A) Asian Development Bank
(B) International Monetary Fund
(C) World Bank
(D) European Union
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

37. Who amongst the following cricket players became the first to score 17000 runs in One Day Internationals ?
(A) Rahul Dravid
(B) Stephen Fleming
(C) Ricky Ponting
(D) Sachin Tendulkar
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

38. The Govt. of India has decided to use the Core Banking System of banks to ensure proper usage of funds provided for which of its following programmes ?
(A) Literacy Mission
(B) Pradhanmantri Gram Sadak Yojana
(C) National Health Mission
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

39. Famous Dada Saheb Phalke Award is given for exemplary work in the field of—
(A) Sports
(B) Literature
(C) Science & Technology
(D) Social Service
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

40. The Reverse Mortgage Scheme was launched by some organizations a few years back. This was done to help which of the following sections of society ?
(A) Beneficiaries of the NREGA
(B) People living Below Poverty Line
(C) Youngsters
(D) Senior Citizens
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

41. The organization of the South East Asian countries is known as—
(A) OPEC
(B) ASEAN
(C) NATO
(D) UNCTAD
(E) SAARC
Ans : (B)

42. ‘Miss Earth 2009’ title has been conferred upon—
(A) Alejandra Pedrajas
(B) Sandra Saifert
(C) Jessica Barboza
(D) Larissa Ramos
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

43. Which of the following countries became the third largest producer of Steel in the world in 2009 ?
(A) China
(B) India
(C) USA
(D) Japan
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

44. The Foreign Trade policy is announced recently by the Govt. of India. Which of the following ministries/agencies announce the same ?
(A) Reserve Bank of India
(B) Export Import Bank of India (EXIM Bank)
(C) Ministry of Foreign Affairs
(D) Ministry of Commerce & Industry
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

45. Irina Bokova has taken over as the Chief of the—
(A) ILO
(B) UNICEF
(C) OPEC
(D) UNO
(E) UNESCO
Ans : (E)

46. Dorjee Khandu has taken over as the Chief Minister of—
(A) Meghalaya
(B) Uttarakhand
(C) Arunachal Pradesh
(D) Assam
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

47. Which of the following terms is used in the game of Football ?
(A) Caddy
(B) Cutback
(C) Mid-on
(D) Love
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

48. Which of the following is considered a Non Food Crop ?
(A) Wheat
(B) Maize
(C) Bajra
(D) Rice
(E) Jute
Ans : (E)

49. Who amongst the following was the Prime Minister of Nepal immediately prior to Madhav Kumar Nepal ?
(A) Ram Baran Yadav
(B) Pushpakamal Dahal
(C) Girija Prasad Koirala
(D) Mahendra Kumar Suryavanshi
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

50. The 10th India-European Summit was held in New Delhi in November 2009. Who amongst the following represented India and also chaired the same ?
(A) S. M. Krishna
(B) Pratibha Patil
(C) Pranab Mukherjee
(D) Manmohan Singh
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

Bank Of India, General Banking Officers Sample Paper 3
Directions—(Q. 1–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.
The King of Kanchi set off to conquer Karnat. He was victorious in batttle. The elephants were laden with sandalwood, ivory, gold and precious stones taken from the conquered kingdom of Karnat. They would be a part of the victory parade for his subjects. On his way back home he stopped at a temple, finished his prayers to the goddess and turned to leave. Around his neck was a garland of scarlet hibiscus and as was the custom for all, his forehead was anointed with red sandal paste. His Minister and the court jester were his only companions. At one spot, in a mango grove by the wayside, they spied some children play. The King said, “Let me go and see what they are playing.”
The children had lined up two rows of clay dolls and were playing warriors and battles. The King asked, “Who is fighting whom ?” They said, “Karnat is at battle with Kanchi.”
The King asked, “Who is winning and who is the loser ?” The children puffed their chests up and said, “Karnat will win and Kanchi will lose.” The Minister froze in disbelief, the King was furious and the jester burst into laughter.
The King was soon joined by his troops and the children were still immersed in their game. The King commanded, “Cane them hard.” The children’s parents came running from the nearby village and said, “They are naive, it was just a game, please grant them pardon.” The King called his commander and ordered, “Teach these children and the village a lesson so that they never forget the King of Kanchi.” He went back to his camp.
That evening the Commander stood before the King. He bowed low in shame and said, “Your Majesty, with the exception of hyenas and vultures, all lie silent in the village.” The Minister said, “His Majesty’s honour has been saved.” The priest said, “The goddess has blessed our King.” The jester said, “Your Highness, please grant me leave to go now.” The King asked, “But why ?” The jester said, “I cannot kill, I cannot maim, I can only laugh at God’s gift of life.” Trembling in the face of the king’s anger he bravely
continued, “If I stay in your Majesty’s court, I shall become like you and I shall forget how to laugh.”
1. Why were the elephants carrying loads of gold and other valuables ?
(A) This was what the king had looted from Karnat to distribute among his soldiers as a reward
(B) This was the king’s offering to the deity out of gratitude for making him victorious
(C) It was what the king had plundered from Karnat to display to the people of his kingdom as a sign of victory
(D) So that the people of the kingdom of Karnat acknowledged him as their new ruler
(E) None of these
2. Why did the king anoint his head with red sandal paste ?
(A) As a mark of celebration to show he had been victorious
(B) It was the usual practice for all devotees at the temple
(C) To show other devotees that he was king
(D) The priest requested him to do so
(E) To show his soldiers that he had visited the temple
3. Which of the following cannot be said about the jester ?
1. He was not a loyal subject of the king.
2. He was afraid of the king’s temper.
3. He did not support the king’s war against Karnat.
(A) Both 1 and 3
(B) Only 1
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
4. What excuse was given for the childrens’ behaviour ?
(A) They were disobedient to their parent’s wishes
(B) They were unaware of the true facts of the battle
(C) They were upset that their army had lost
(D) They were in the habit of lying
(E) None of these
5. Why did the jester laugh at the children’s reply to the king ?
1. They correctly predicted the outcome of the battle.
2. Their reply was cheeky because they knew he was the king.
3. He wanted to show that their reply was a joke to save them from being punished by the king.
(A) Only 1
(B) Both 1 and 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 2 and 3
(E) None of these
6. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage ?
(A) The king stopped at the temple to see what else could be plundered
(B) The people of the village to which the children belonged developed great respect for the king
(C) The Commander was ashamed at having obeyed the king’s orders to cane the children
(D) The jester was unhappy that the king had defeated the army of Karnat
(E) The children had shown disrespect to the goddess by playing so close to the temple
7. Why did the jester resign from his post ?
(A) He felt that the king was too influenced by the Minister
(B) To show that he disapproved of the king’s action of punishing the children
(C) He did not want to accompany the king on his war campaign
(D) He was no longer able to make the king laugh
(E) None of these
8. Which of the following describes the Minister ?
1. He was jealous of the jester.
2. He was the king’s most valuable advisor.
3. He did not have a good sense of humour.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 3
(C) Both 1 and 3
(D) Both 1 and 2
(E) None of these
9. Which of the following was/were the outcome(s) of the soldiers beating the children ?
1. The animals began to howl and wanted to attack the soldiers.
2. The children’s parents went to the king to beg for mercy.
3. The priest offered prayers to the goddess of the temple.
(A) Only 1
(B) All 1, 2 and 3
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Only 2
(E) None of these
10. Why was the king angry with the children ?
(A) Because the game they were playing was dangerous
(B) They had lied to him
(C) They did not recognize him as king
(D) They had unknowingly insulted him
(E) They were rude to him
Directions—(Q. 11–13) Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
11. froze
(A) cold
(B) numb
(C) shivered
(D) stood still
(E) chill
12. leave
(A) holiday
(B) transfer
(C) exit
(D) permission
(E) farewell
13. spied
(A) noticed
(B) keep watch
(C) followed
(D) spot
(E) caught
Directions—(Q. 14–15) Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word printed inbold as used in the passage.
14. immersed in
(A) safe from
(B) distracted from
(C) boring
(D) drowning in
(E) entertained by
15. pardon
(A) punishment
(B) excuse
(C) convict
(D) intolerance
(E) imprison
Directions—(Q. 16–20) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence
grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and ‘No correction is required’, mark (E) as the answer.
16. Your bonus will dependent the quality of your work.
(A) is dependable
(B) depends on
(C) being dependent
(D) going to depend
(E) No correction required
17. He did not ask for a raise since he had fear to lose his job.
(A) was fearful of
(B) was feared to
(C) was afraid to
(D) had been afraid to
(E) No correction required
18. The organizers agreed to shift the conference at some place convenience to all participants.
(A) any of the place convenient
(B) at places convenient
(C) from a place of convenience
(D) to a place convenient
(E) No correction required
19. As compared to last year there has been a sharp rise in interest rates.
(A) sharper rise of
(B) as sharp a rise
(C) sharp rises in
(D) sharply rising
(E) No correction required
20. In the 1970s banks required to submit their detailed plans of expansion to RBI.
(A) were required to submit
(B) required for submission
(C) are required to submit
(D) requirement of submitting
(E) No correction required
Directions—(Q. 21–25) Rearrange the following Six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them—
1. I had paid a lot of attention during training and could easily answer the questions till I came to the last one. What is the name of the lady who cleans your floor ?
2. ‘Yes’, he replied. “In your career you will meet many people all of whom are significant even if all you do is greet them.”
3. I thought the question was a joke. I had seen her but how would I know her name ?
4. During my internship we were given a quiz to see how much we had learnt.
5. I have never forgotten this lesson.
6. I submitted my paper leaving the last question blank and asked the manager if it would count for assessment.
21. Which of the following will be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
22. Which of the following will be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 6
(E) 5
23. Which of the following will be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
24. Which of the following will be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
25. Which of the following will be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Directions—(Q. 26–30) In each sentence below four words have been printed in bold which are lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these words may be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the wrongly spelt or inappropriate word. The letter of that word is the answer. If all the words are correctly spelt and are appropriate the answer is (E), i.e. ‘All correct’.
26. My gole (A) is to acquire (B) a position (C) of authority (D) and respect within the organization. All correct (E)
27. The refusal (A) of the Ministry to clear pending (B) dues is a course (C) for concern (D) . All correct (E)
28. He was convinced (A) that discipline (B) and hard work would result (C) in dividents (D) in the long run. All correct (E)
29. This is a company which believes (A) in transparency (B) and appointment is done strictly (C) on merit (D). All correct (E)
30. There will be a decline(A) in the probability (B) of oil companies because of the hike (C) in oil prices (D). All correct (E)
Directions—(Q. 31–40) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it.The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E) i.e. ‘No error’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)
31. The revised government’s (A) /guidelines have reduced (B)/ the number of mergers (C) / taking place among banks. (D) No error (E)
32. I do not know (A) / who of the (B) /new trainees should (C) / be confirmed. (D) No error (E)
33. To promote India as (A) / a tourist destination (B)/ the government has organized (C) / many cultural programmes. (D) No error (E)
34. Banks in India (A) / cannot open ATMs (B)/ except obtaining (C) / approval from RBI. (D) No error (E)
35. Today the success of (A) / companies depends on the (B)/ quality of their products and(C) /efficient managing staff. (D) No error (E)
36. Ashok has managed to (A) / achieve his sales targets (B)/ for the quarter very easily (C) / than we expected. (D) No error (E)
37. He did not grant (A) / their request for a loan (B)/ although it would (C) / displease his boss. (D) No error (E)
38. At present oil companies (A) / are making a loss of (B)/ rupees five on all (C) / litre of petrol that they sell. (D) No error (E)
39. The manager’s belief that (A) / Ramesh is (B)/ incompetent is not (C) / necessary true. (D) No error (E)
40. Since I was doing (A) / my MBA I initially (B)/ chose to specialize (C) / in marketing management. (D) No error (E)
Directions—(Q. 41–50) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
He was a charismatic leader, an entrepreneur and a highly effective manager all rolled into one. As a leader, he…(41)… the company’s growth plan in a dedicated manner and he never …(42)… focus. The cement industry in those days was doing badly. …(43)… to everyone’s expectations he sanctioned an additional plant in …(44)… time. He was …(45)… that since the cement industry was cyclic in nature, by the time the plant was …(46)… the market would have improved. It did happen and the decision brought rich …(47)… when the plant was commissioned.
Not only was he a great entrepreneur but he also …(48)… all his senior people to be ‘practising entrepreneurs’. I have seen a similar example at the Asian Institute of
Management, which allows its professors to …(49)… their own business. This made their lectures more practical and less theoretical. It is the …(50)… of the Institute’s success.
41. (A) achieved
(B) implemented
(C) visualised
(D) persevered
(E) aimed
42. (A) moved
(B) shifts
(C) missed
(D) changes
(E) lost
43. (A) Contrary
(B) Opposite
(C) Yet
(D) Obedient
(E) Different
44. (A) any
(B) mean
(C) short
(D) no
(E) less
45. (A) known
(B) calculating
(C) certain
(D) dreamt
(E) surely
46. (A) operational
(B) install
(C) use
(D) produced
(E) new
47. (A) supply
(B) diversity
(C) rewards
(D) pay
(E) knowledge
48. (A) thought
(B) tried
(C) wished
(D) encourage
(E) wanted
49. (A) expand
(B) function
(C) chose
(D) run
(E) risk
50. (A) responsibility
(B) secret
(C) guarantee
(D) prize
(E) value

ANDHRA BANK PO PAPER ON 12Th SEPTEMBER 2008

General Awareness
1. What is the population of India ?
(A) 98 crores
(B) More than 2 billion
(C) More than 1 billion
(D) Less than 96 crores
(E) 96 crores

2. Thermostat is an instrument used to—
(A) measure flow of current
(B) measure intensity of voltage
(C) regulate temperature
(D) regulate velocity of sound
(E) None of these

3. Wimbledon Trophy is associated with—
(A) Football (B) Cricket
(C) Hockey (D) Basketball
(E) Lawn Tennis

4. GNP stands for—
(A) Gross National Product
(B) Group Net Product
(C) Grand Nuclear Process
(D) Group Networking Process
(E) None of these

5. ‘Acoustics’ is the science of the study of—
(A) Light (B) Sound
(C) Electricity (D) Magnetism
(E) None of these

6. Noise pollution is measured in the unit called—
(A) micron
(B) nautical miles
(C) ohms
(D) ampere
(E) decibel

7. ‘Heavy Water’ is used in which of the following types of indus-tries ?
(A) Sugar
(B) Nuclear Power
(C) Textile
(D) Coal
(E) None of these

8. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘Indomi-table Spirit’?
(A) Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(B) Dr. Manmohan Singh
(C) Justice K. G. Balakrishna
(D) Mr. Natwar Singh
(E) None of these

9. Which of the following is not the name of popular IT/Software Company ?
(A) Wipro (B) Mastek
(C) Toyota (D) IBM
(E) Infosys

10. ‘Yen’ is the currency of—
(A) South Korea
(B) China
(C) Indonesia
(D) Malaysia
(E) None of these

11. Baichung Bhutia whose name was in news is a well known—
(A) Music Director of Indian films
(B) English author of Indian origin
(C) Journalist
(D) Politician
(E) Sports Personality

12. ‘Richter Scale’ is used to measure which of the following ?
(A) Intensity of Tsunami Waves
(B) Intensity of Earthquake
(C) Density of salt in Sea water
(D) Flow of electric current
(E) None of these

13. Which of the following best explains ‘e-governance’?
(A) Improving the functioning of government
(B) Teaching government emp-loyees the basics of computing
(C) Delivery of public services through internet
(D) Framing of cyber-laws of chatting on internet
(E) Convergence of e-mail and video-conferencing

14. CAS is associated with which of the following ?
(A) Legal System Reforms
(B) Piped gas line
(C) Cable T.V.
(D) Mobile phone regulation
(E) None of these

15. Tata Steel recently acquired the Corus, a steel giant situated in—
(A) South Africa
(B) Ukraine
(C) Australia
(D) Italy
(E) Britain

16. Which of the following is the abbreviated name of the Organi-zation/Agency working in the field of Space Research ?
(A) ISBN
(B) ISRO
(C) INTELSET
(D) INTACH
(E) None of these

17. ‘Handshaking’ in Networking parlance means—
(A) connecting computers to a hub
(B) distributed Networks
(C) having same operating system on different computers
(D) sending e-mail
(E) None of these

18. VAT stands for—
(A) Value And Tax
(B) Value Added Tax
(C) Virtual Action Tasks
(D) Virtual Assessment Tech-nique
(E) None of these

19. Alzheimer’sdiseaseistheailment of which of the following organs /parts of the human body ?
(A) Kidney
(B) Heart
(C) Liver
(D) Stomach
(E) Brain

20. Global warming is a matter of concern amongst the nations these days. Which of the follo-wing countries is the largest emitter of greenhouse gases in the World ?
(A) U.S.A.
(B) China
(C) India
(D) Britain
(E) None of these

21. Which of the following books has been written by Bill Gates ?
(A) Microsoft Secrets
(B) The Road Ahead
(C) The Elephant Paradigm
(D) e-commerce
(E) None of these

22. Which of the following is the name of the social network service run by the Google on the internet ?
(A) Online Space
(B) Orkut
(C) Net-Space
(D) Wikipedia
(E) None of these

23. Which of the following states is a relatively new addition ?
(A) Goa
(B) Delhi
(C) Uttarakhand
(D) Himachal Pradesh
(E) Bihar

24. DOT stands for—
(A) Disc Operating Therapy
(B) Department of Telephones
(C) Directorate of Technology
(D) Damage on Time
(E) None of these


25. Which of the following States/ parts of India is completely land locked having no contact with sea ?
(A) Karnataka
(B) Orissa
(C) Maharashtra
(D) North-East
(E) None of these

26. TRAI regulates the functioning of which of the following servi-ces ?
(A) Telecom (B) Trade
(C) Port (D) Transport
(E) None of these

27. At present for the ATMs in India, the most commonly used net-work communication mode is—
(A) Very Small Aperture Termi-nal (VSAT)
(B) General Packet Radio Ser-vice (GPRS)
(C) Code Division Multiple Access (CDMA)
(D) Dial-in Connection
(E) None of these

28. Which of the following is not a foreign bank operating in India ?
(A) DBS Bank Ltd.
(B) Sonali Bank
(C) J. P. Morgan Chase Bank
(D) Shinhan Bank
(E) All are Foreign Banks

29. Who is the author of the book ‘Future Shock’ ?
(A) Alvin Toffler
(B) Tom Peters
(C) Napoleon Hill
(D) Kenneth Blanchard
(E) None of these

30. Apex fares are—
(A) more than the normal fare
(B) less than the normal fare
(C) offered only to corporate clients
(D) applicable to late night flights only
(E) applicable to international flights only

31. Who amongst the following is the Director of the film ‘Water’ which was in news ?
(A) Vidhu Vinod Chopra
(B) Mrinal Sen
(C) Gulzar
(D) Mahesh Bhatt
(E) None of these

32. The 10th plan period is upto—
(A) 2007 (B) 2008
(C) 2009 (D) 2010
(E) None of these

33. OPEC is a group of countries which are—
(A) exporting oil
(B) producting cotton
(C) rich and developed
(D) developing and poor
(E) nuclear powers

34. Intel Company mainly pro-duces—
(A) Hard disks
(B) VCDs
(C) Monitors
(D) Software
(E) None of these

34. Intel Company mainly pro-duces—
(A) Hard disks
(B) VCDs
(C) Monitors
(D) Software
(E) None of these

35. Who amongst the following is the M.D./Chairman of one of the major Steel Companies ?
(A) Shri L. N. Mittal
(B) Shri K. K. Birla
(C) Shri Vijaypat Singhania
(D) Shri Mukesh Ambani
(E) Shri Anil Agarwal

36. Who is the President of Nass-com?
(A) Kiran Karnik
(B) Narayana Murthy
(C) Pramod Desai
(D) Devang Mehta
(E) None of these

37. Which of the following awards is not given for excellence in the field of literature ?
(A) Booker Prize
(B) Nobel Prize
(C) Pulitzer Price
(D) Arjun Award
(E) Bharatiya Gnanpith Award

38. ‘Singur’ which was in news is a place in—
(A) Orissa
(B) West Bengal
(C) Jharkhand
(D) Bihar
(E) Maharashtra

39. Who amongst the following is the author of the book series named as ‘Harry Potter’ ?
(A) J. K. Rowling
(B) Lindsay Lohan
(C) Julia Roberts
(D) Sandra Bullock
(E) None of these

40. Which of the following Satellites recentlydedicatedtonation helps Direct to Home Television Ser-vice in India ?
(A) Matsat
(B) Edusat
(C) Insat–4b
(D) Insat–IB
(E) None of these

41. Many a times we read some news items about the ‘West Bank’. ‘West Bank’ is situated at the western side of the river—
(A) Mississippi
(B) Amazon
(C) Nile
(D) Jordan
(E) None of these

42. Which of the following pheno-menon is considered responsible for ‘Global Warming’ ?
(A) Greenhouse Gas Effect
(B) Fox Fire
(C) Dry Farming
(D) Radioactivity
(E) None of these

43. Which of the following instru-ments is not issued by a bank ?
(A) Demand Draft
(B) Pay Order
(C) Debit Card
(D) Credit Card
(E) National Saving Certificate

44. Name of Jyoti Randhawa is asso-ciated with which of the follo-wing games ?
(A) Golf
(B) Badminton
(C) Hockey
(D) Chess
(E) None of these

45. Which of the following Software Companies recently launched its education portal ‘Unlimited Potential’ in India ?
(A) Microsoft (B) Infosys
(C) Wipro (D) TCS
(E) None of these

46. Polly Umrigar who died was a well known—
(A) Cricketer
(B) Tennis Player
(C) Golfer
(D) Chess Player
(E) Hockey Player

47. In India Census is done after a gap of every—
(A) Five years
(B) Seven years
(C) Eight years
(D) Ten years
(E) Fifteen years

48. Prof. Muhammad Yunus the recipient of the Nobel Peace Prize 2006 is the exponent of which of the following concepts in the field of banking ?
(A) Core Banking
(B) Micro Credit
(C) Retail Banking
(D) Real Time Gross Settlement
(E) Internet Banking

49. Who amongst the following was India’s official candidate for the post of UNO’s Secretary Gene- ral ?
(A) Mr. Shyam Saran
(B) Dr. C. Rangarajan
(C) Mr. Shashi Tharoor
(D) Mr. Vijay Nambiar
(E) None of these

50. Mr. Gordon Brown has taken over as the Prime Minister of—
(A) Italy
(B) Canada
(C) France
(D) South Africa
(E) Britain

Answers with Explanation:-
1. (C) 2. (C) 3. (E) 4. (A) 5. (B) 6. (E) 7. (B)
8. (A) Indomitable Spirit is a book authored by Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam the ex-President of India. The book brings together the values, thoughts and ideas of President Kalam as reflected in his speeches and addresses. Interspersed with interesting ancedotes and observations, indomitable Spirit represents the quintessential A.P.J. Abdul Kalam—the man, the scientist, the teacher and the President.
9. (C) 10. (E)
11. (E) Baichung Bhutia is a football player from India. He is known by his fans as the torchbearer of Indian football in the inter-national arena. He is currently captain of Indian team and plays for Mohan Bagan.
12. (B) 13. (C)
14. (C) A Conditional Access System (CAS) is a system by which ele-ctronic transmission of digital Media, especially satellite televi-sion signals through cable is limited to subscribed clients. This is called conditional access. The signal is encrypted and is unav-ailable for unauthorised recep-tion. A set-top box containing a conditional access Module is required in the customer premi-ses to receive and decrypt the signal. CAS is now becoming a significant concern for Major companies in the DVB-H Market because broadcasters are looking to control the digital signals that they will be broadcasting.
15. (E) 16. (B)
17. (A) Handshaking is a network-ing process when two computers establish a connection. An example of a handshake is when your modern dialup’s to a com-puter network and agrees on baud rate, error correction and compression protocols. Hand-shaking usually occurs when packets of data are exchanged between two computers.
18. (B) 19. (E) 20. (B)
21. (B) The Road Ahead, a book written by Bill Gates, Nathan Myhrvold and Peter Rinearson, andPublishedinNovember 1995, summarized the implications of the personal computing revolu-tion and described a future profoundly changed by the arri-val of a global interactive net-work.
22. (B) Orkut is an internet social network service run by Google and named after its creator, Google employee Orkut Buyuk-kokten. It claims to be designed to help user meet new friends and maintain existing relation-ships.Similar to facebook, friend-ster and my space. Orkut was launched in January 2004 by the search company Google. In Octo-ber 2006, Orkut stated to have 37 million account and 1·3 million daily visitors. As of August 2007, the service claimed 67 million users.23. (C)
24. (E) Dot stands for Department of Telecommunications.
25. (D)
26. (A) The Telecommunications Regulatory Authority of India or TRAI (established 1997) is the independent regulator establis-hed by the Government of India to regulate the telecommunica-tions business in India.
27. (A) 28. (E)
29. (A) Future Shock is a book written by the Sociologist and Futurologist Alvin Toffler in 1970. The book is actually an extension of an article of the same name that Toffler wrote for the February 1970 issue of play-boy. The book has sold over 6 million copies and has been widely translated. A documen-tary film based on the book was released in 1972 with Orson Welles as on screen.
30. (B)
31. (E) Water 2005, is an Academy Award-nominated Canadian film directed and written by Deepa Mehta. It is set in 1938 and explores the lives of widows at an ashram in Vanarasi, India. The film is also the third part of a linked trilogy by Mehta, prece-ded by fire (1996) and Earth (1998).
32. (A) 33. (A)
34. (E) Intel Company mainly pro-duces Microprocessor, Flash memory, Motherboard Chipsets, Network Interface card, Blue-tooth Chipsets etc.
35. (A) 36. (A) 37. (D) 38. (b) 39. (a)
40. (c)
41. (d) The West Bank, also known as ‘Judea and Samaria’ is a landlocked territory on the West Bank of the Jordon River in the middle east. Since 1967 most of the West Bank has been under Israeli occupation.
42. (a) 43. (e) 44. (a) 45. (a) 46. (a) 47. (D)
48. (b) Muhammad Yunus is a Bangladeshi banker and econo-mist. He previously was a profe-ssor of Economics and is famous for his successful application of Microcredit. The extension of small loans. These loans are given to entrepreneurs too poor to qualify for traditional bank loans. Yunus is also the founder of Grameen Bank. In 2006 Yunus and the bank were jointly awar-ded the Nobel Peace Prize.
49. (C)
50. (E) James Gordon Brown is the Prime Minister of the United Kingdom of Great Britain and Northern Ireland. He took office on June 27, 2007, three days after becoming leader of the Labour Party

Andhra Bank Clerk Recruitment

Exam Name:
Clerical Recruitment
Conducted By:
Andhra Bank
Conducted in:
Dec 2007
Topic:
Part IV (ENGLISH LANGUAGE)
Number of Questions:
50

Directions (151-165): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

For many years, the continent Africa remained unexplored and unknown. The main reason was the inaccessibility to its interior region due to dense forests, wild -life savage tribals, deserts andbarren solid hills. Many people tried to explore the land could not survive the dangers. David Living- stone is among those brave few who not only explored part of Africa but also lived among the tribals bringing them near to social milieu. While others explored with the idea of expanding their respective empires. Livingstone did so to explore its vast and mysterious hinterland, rivers and lakes. He was primarily a religious man and a medical practitioner who tried to help mankind with it.

Livingstone was born in Scotland and was educated to become a doctor and priest. Hisexploration started at the beginning of the year 1852. He explored an unknown river in Western Luanda. However, he was reduced to a skeleton during four years of traveling. By this time, he had become famous and when he returned to England for convalescing, entire London, along with Queen Victoria turned to welcome him. After a few days, he returned to Africa.
He discovered the origin of the River Nile in 1866. He again suffered many discomforts. He became too sick and could not even walk. He lost contact with rest of the world that grew anxious to know his whereabouts. Ultimately, it was Stanley, the American journalist, who found him after many efforts, but Livingstone had died in a tribal village in 1873. His body was brought to London and buried in West-minister with full honor.

151. Livingstone deserves credit for which of the following?
(1) For expanding his empire
(2) For enjoying the wild life of the continent
(3) For exploring part of Africa and living among the tribals
(4) For quenching his thirst for living in the company of nature
(5) None of these



152. What was the impact of four -year travelling on Livingstone?
(1) He could enjoy a social life among tribals' society
(2) He derived satisfaction with the exploration of an unknown river
(3) He derived satisfaction as he became very famous
(4) It badly affected his health
(5) None of these

153. Which of the following shows that Livingstone had become very famous?
(1) Queen Victoria along with the people of London had come to meet him
(2) Queen Victoria arranged for the medical expenses
(3) The tribals were grateful to him for his medical expenses
(4) He was assigned the task of a priest although he was a medical professional
(5) None of these

154. Why were people not aware to the existence of Africa?
(1) It was inaccessible due to oceanic reefs
(2) Its territory was covered with dense forests
(3) People outside the continent were chased away by native tribals
(4) Explorers were afraid of the risks involved
(5) None of these

155. Livingstone can best be described by which of the following?
(1) A person with an urge for exploration of unknown parts of the world
(2) A person with religious mindset
(3) A social reformer
(4) A warmhearted medical practitioner
(5) A famous priest popular among the British

156. Which of the following was/ were explored by Livingstone?
(a) A river in Western Luanda
(b) Scotland
(c) The origin of river Nile
(1) (a) and (b) only
(2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (a) and (c) only
(4) (a) only
(5) (b) only

157. The American journalist Stanley can be credited for which of the following?
(a) Performing the last rites of Livingstone's dead body.
(b) Relentless efforts for finding out the whereabouts of Living stone.
(c) The anxiety to explore undiscovered parts of the world.
(1) (a) and (b) only
(2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (a) and (c) only
(4) (b) only
(5) (c) only

158. Livingstone became too sick to walk and, as a result
(a) People in the world lost contact with him
(b) His whereabouts were not known.
(c) American journalist, Stanley could not locate him despite many efforts.
(1) (a) only
(2) (b) only
(3) (c) only
(4) (a) and (b) only
(5) None of these

159. In what way Livingstone's exploration efforts were different from those of others?
(1) Livingstone's exploration was restricted only to unknown rivers, whereas others explored dense forests
(2) Others explored with selfish motives; Livingstone explored to know the mysterious parts of the world
(3) Others explored new parts of the world for wealth, but Livingstone did so for religious purposes
(4) Being a medical practitioner he tied to explore medicines; others did for tribal population
(5) None of these

Directions (160-162): Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

160. REST
(1) remainder
(2) relax
(3) respite
(4) discovery
(5) most

161. EXPLORATION
(1) execution
(2) cultivation
(3) foundation
(4) discovery
(5) assimilation

162. TURNED
(1) rotated
(2) twisted
(3) spinned
(4) revolved
(5) arrived





Directions (163-165): Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

163. DENSE
(1) crowed
(2) dark
(3) sparse
(4) transparent
(5) opaque

164. BARREN
(1) uncultivated
(2) fertile
(3) forest
(4) unlevelled
(5) marshy

165. VAST
(1) miniature
(2) magnified
(3) enormous
(4) gigantic
(5) small

Directions (166-175): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5), i.e. 'No Error'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

166. The interrogation made by (1) / him hardly yield (2)/ any concrete conclusion (3)/ about the crime. (4)/ No error (5)

167. What you had said (1)/ about the employees was (2)/ found to be correct (3)/ but it could not be proved. (4)/ No error (5)

168. When you had started (1)/ the work, you should (2)/ ensure that you (3)/ concentrate on it. (4)/ No error (5)

169. If you have good (1)/ control over breathing (2)/ you can float (3)/ on water effortlessly.
(4) /No error (5)

170. The way to the fort (1)/ was too difficult that (2)/ we could not reach (3)/ the farthest point. (4)/ No error (5)

171. When we heard the name (1)/ of our leader uttered (2)/ respectfully by the foreigners (3)/ we felt pride of him. (4)/ No error (5)

172. It goes to his credit (1)/that he was a clean man (2)/ in politics as well as (3)/ his person dealings. (4)/ No error (5)

173. His strictly discipline (1)/ had made him (2)/ very unpopular among (3)/all the employees. (4)/ No error (5)

174. Jamshedji knew that (1)/ an industrial revolution can (2)/ only brought in the country (3)/ by setting up iron and steel industry. (4)/ No error (5)

175. He being the oldest son (1)/ has requested us (2)/ to look after the problem (3)/ faced by the father. (4)/ No error (5)

Directions (176-180): Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

176. There is no need of any proof because everything is very________.
(1) obvious
(2) uncertain
(3) definite
(4) regular
(5) essential

177. Onions grow in ____ in this part and hence they are always very cheap here.
(1) demand
(2) abundance
(3) peak
(4) excessive
(5) dearth

178. Normally he is very ______ in his behaviour, but on that occasion he behaved very aggressively.
(1) rude
(2) obedient
(3) docile
(4) intolerant
(5) immature

179. If you ___ in advance, you will get some concession.
(1) buy
(2) work
(3) submit
(4) pay
(5) decide





180. I have in my album photographs of some of my very close friends __ I can never forget.
(1) that
(2) who
(3) whom
(4) which
(5) those

Directions (181-185): In each question below four words which are numbered (1), (2), (3) and
(4) have been printed of which, one may be wrongly spelt. The number of that word is the answer. If all the four words are correctly spelt, mark (5) i.e. "All Correct" as the answer.

181. (1) Discloser
(2) Indifference
(3) Cooperative
(4) Irreversible
(5) All Correct

182. (1) Repetition
(2) Conservative
(3) Acceptability
(4) Innovative
(5) All Correct

183. (1) Vigilant
(2) Judilee
(3) Receptive
(4) Possessive
(5) All Correct

184. (1) Decisive
(2) Destructive
(3) Accommodation
(4) Pioneer
(5) All Correct

185. (1) Compromising
(2) Enthusiasm
(3) Dislocation
(4) Immigration
(5) All Correct

Directions (186-190): Rearrange the following sentences (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(a) They are not bothered to break rules of the society, laws and even relations.
(b) But one thing is certain. They will one day realize that this importance needs to be shifted.
(c) People are generally ready to go to any extent to possess these materialistic aspects.
(d) All this shift will certainly be in favour of good and socially desirable values.
(e) This is all because of the undue importance attached to these aspects.
(f) Money, comfort, luxuries have dominated all other considerations these days.

186. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
(1) F
(2) E
(3) D
(4) C
(5) B

187. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement?
(1) F
(2) E
(3) D
(4) C
(5) B

188. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?
(1) F
(2) E
(3) D
(4) C
(5) B

189. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
(1) F
(2) E
(3) D
(4) C
(5) B

190. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
(1) F
(2) E
(3) D
(4) C
(5) B

Directions (191-200): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against, each five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
Dr. Swaminathan is not only a (191) scientist but also an able administrator and an (192) organiser of projects. He has served the country by (193) many significant positions. His researches in the field of agriculture and his efforts for (194) the quality of wheat in particular, have (195) him laurels. Dr. Borlogue has highly (196) his works.
Dr. Swaminathan, is a honorary member of 14 important International Scientific Societies/ Councils including the Royal Society of London. Many Universities have (197) doctorate on him. In 1972, he was awarded "Padma Bhushan", Dr. Swaminathan (198) in work, not in popularity and that is the (199) he never came into so much (200).

191. (1) famous
(2) magnificent
(3) decisive
(4) renewed
(5) glorious

192. (1) insecure
(2) absolute
(3) overt
(4) incompetent
(5) efficient

193. (1) creating
(2) developing
(3) encouraging
(4) holding
(5) appointing

194. (1) magnifying
(2) growing
(3) improving
(4) judging
(5) deciding

195. (1) prospered
(2) won
(3) acquired
(4) made
(5) donated

196. (1) analysed
(2) appreciated
(3) cooperated
(4) recommended
(5) curtailed

197. (1) given
(2) registered
(3) conferred
(4) passed
(5) dictated


198. (1) aspires
(2) enjoys
(3) dedicates
(4) believes
(5) continues

199. (1) reason
(2) aim
(3) perspective
(4) way
(5) essence

200. (1) fame
(2) respect
(3) reputation
(4) disregard
(5) limelight

Andhra Bank Clerk Recruitment

Exam Name:
Clerical Recruitment
Conducted By:
Andhra Bank
Conducted in:
Dec 2007
Topic:
Part III (Clerical Aptitude)
Number of Questions:
50
CLERICAL APTITUDE

Directions (101-135): In each question below a combination of Name and Address is given in the first column at the left followed by four such combinations one each under the columns 1, 2, 3 and 4. You have to find out the combination which is exactly the same as the combination in the first column. The number of that column which contains that combination is the answer. If all the combinations are different, the answer is '5'

1 2 3 4 5
101 Naresh Jain Phool Galli, 27
Ujjain 489650 Naresh Jain Phool Galli, 72
Ujjain 489650 Naresh Jani Phool Galli, 27
Ujjain 489650 Naresh Jain Phool Galli, 27
Ujjain 489650 Naresh Jain Phool Galli, 27
Ujjain 849650 None
102 Tikam Haryanwi
211, Sector 19'B'
Hamirpur-26 Tikam Haryanwi
112, Sector 19'B'
Hamirpur-26 Tikam Haryanwi
211, Sector 19'B'
Hamirpur-26 Tikam Haryanwi
211, Sector 19'B'
Hamirpur-62 Tikam Haryanwi
211, Sector 19'D'
Hamirpur-26 None
103 Komal Shirali
Venkatesh Chowk
Nampalli-74 Kamal Shirali
Venkatesh Chowk
Nampalli-74 Komal Shirali
Venkatesh Chowk
Nampalli-47 Komal Shirali
Venkatesh Chowk
Nompalli-74 Komal Shirali
Venkatesh Chowk
Nampalli-74 None
104 Lynette Montiero
D'mello Road
Goa-11 Lynette Montiero
D'mello Road
Goa-11 Lynette Montiero
Demello Road
Goa-11 Lynette Montiro
D'mello Road
Goa-11 Lvnette Montiero
D'mello Road
Goa-11 None
105 Sohail Hassan Firdosi Baug Fatehpur-588 Sohail Hassan Firdost Baug Fatehpur-588 Sohail Hassan Firdosi Baug Fathepur-588 Sohail Hassansh Firdosi Baug Fatehpur-588 Sohail Hasan Firdosi Baug Fatehpur-588 None
106 D.S. Patra
16/309, M.I.Road Sihora -369705 D.S. Pitra
16/309, M.I.Road Sihora -369705 D.S. Patra
26/309, M.I.Road Sihora -369705 D.S. Patra
16/309, N.I.Road Sihora -369705 D.S. Patra
16/309, M.I.Road Sihora -369705 None
107 Dr. Gandhi H.V. Pavagarh-(N) Pin-321963 Dr. Gandhi N.V. Pavagarh-(N) Pin-321963 Dr. Gandhi H.V. Pevagarh-(N) Pin-321963 Dr. Gandhi H.V. Pavagarh-(N) Pin-321963 Dr. Gandhi H.V. Pavagarh-(N) Tel-321963 None
108 Limaye & Sons Shop No. 63 Fax-3511310 Limaye & Sons Shop No. 63 Tel-3511310 Limaye & Sons Shop No. 63 Fax-3511310 Limbaye & Sons Shop No. 63 Fax-3511310 Limaye & Sons Gate No. . 63 Fax-3511310 None
109 Faria Pereira
Mogra Pada Raurkela -27 Faria Pereira
Mogra Pada Raurkela -27 Maria Pereira
Mogra Panda Raurkela -27 Faria Pereira
Mogra Pada Raurkela -17 Faria Fereira
Mogra Pada Raurkela -27 None
110 Ketki Doshi H.No. 133,IV Lane Rajkot-36531 Ketki Roshi H.No. 133,IV Lane Rajkot-36531 Ketki Doshi H.No. 133,IV Lane Rajkot-36531 Ketki Doshi Q.No. 133,IV Lane Rajkot-36531 Ketki Doshi H.No. 133,V Lane Rajkot-36531 None
111 R.K. Kukreja Sr. Stores Offil Chamba-26 K.R. Kukreja Sr. Stores Offil Chamba-26 R.K. Kukreja Jr. Stores Offil Chamba-26 R.K. Kukreja Sr. Stores Offil Chhamba-26 R.K. Kukreja Sr. Stores Offil Chamba-26 None
112 Mahendra Ragi Panchouli Pin-180095 Mahendra Ragi Panchouli Tel-180095 Mahendra Raji Panchouli Pin-180095 Mahendra Ragi Panchouli Pin-180095 Mahendra Ragi Panchouli Pin-180195 None
113 Lali Da Dhaba Ludhiana-24/9 Pin-269863 Lali Da Dhaba Ludhiana-24/9 Pin-269863 Lali Da Dhaba Ludhiana-29/4 Pin-269863 Lali Da Dhaba Ludhiana-24/9 Pin-268963 Bali Da Dhaba Ludhiana-24/9 Pin-269863 None
114 Samantha Daiz St. Angelos Towers Tel. 24967353 Samantha Daiz St. Angelos Towers Tel. 24967353 Samantha Dias St. Angelos Towers Tel. 24967353 Samantha Daiz St. Angoles Towers Tel. 24967353 Samantha Daiz St. Angelos Towers Ph. 24967353 None
115 Paparazi Snacks Chotu Lane-02 Tel-66114282 Paparazi Snacks Chotu Lane-02 Tel-66114282 Paparasi Snacks Chotu Lane-02 Tel-66114282 Paparazi Snacks Chotu Lane-02 Tel-66141282 Papparazi Snacks Chotu Lane-02 Tel-66114282 None
116 Yehangoor Nayyar Chompagar Road Kerala 21 Yehangoor Nayyar Chompagar Road Kerala 12 Yehangoor Nayyar Champagar Road Kerala 21 Yelangoor Nayyer Chompagar Road Kerala 21 Yehangoor Nayyar Chompagar Road Kerala 21 None
117 Collector House Sect. 14, Main Rd. Panipat -17 Collector House Sect. 41, Main Rd. Panipat -17 Collector House Sect. 14, Main Rd. Panipat -27 Collectral House Sect. 14, Main Rd. Panipat -17 Collector House Sect. 14, Main Rd. Panipat -17 None
118 Samaira Salon Shalimar Centre Tel 26115975 Samaira Salon Shalimar Centre Tel 26115975 Samaira Saloon Shalimar Centre Tel 26115975 Samaira Salon Shalimar Centre Tel 26115975 Samaira Salon Shalimar Centre Tel 26115975 None
119 Vangar Optics Kashmira Baug Nampalli 58 Vanjar Optics Kashmira Baug Nampalli 58 Vangar Optics Kashmira Baug Nampalli 58 Vangar Optics Kashmira Baug Nampalli 85 Vangar Optico Kashmira Baug Nampalli 58 None
120 Van de Troost II/B 906 Cap Trichur 06 Van de Trust II/B 906 Cap Trichur 06 Van de Troost I/B 906 Cap Trichur 06 Van de Troost II/B 906 Cap Trichur 06 Van de Troost II/D 906 Cap Trichur 06 None
121 Ganpat Wakhde Vinayak Travels Ph 24630978 Ganpat Wakhde Vinayak Travels Ph 24630978 Ganpat Wahkhde Vinayak Travels Ph 24630978 Ganpat Wakhde Vinayak Travels Tel 24630978 Ganpat Wakhde Vinayak Trovels Ph 24630978 None
122 Labade Estates Kaladhan House Mb-942042002 Lobade Estates Kaladhan House Mb-942042002 Labade Estates Kaladhar House Mb-942042002 Labade Estates Kaladhan House Mob-942042002 Labade Estates Kaladhan House Mb-942042002 None
123 Gujjar Enterprises Lane 3, S.M. Marg Samanagar 41 Gujjar Enterprise Lane 3, S.M. Marg Samanagar 41 Gujjar Enterprises Lane 2, S.M. Marg Samanagar 41 Gujjar Enterprises Lane 3, S.M. Marg Samanagar 41 Gujjar Enterprises Lane 3, S.M. Marg Samanagar 14 None
124 Loko Roko toys A Golden Towers Choksi-39 Roko Roko toys A Golden Towers Choksi-39 Loko Roko toys A Golden Tawers Choksi-39 Loko Roko toys A Golden Towers Choksi-93 Loko Roko toys A Golden Towers Choksi-39 None
125 Kossum Karkera Chief Ex PHLD Mob 9672135914 Kussum Karkera Chief Ex PHLD Mob 9672135914 Kossum Karkara Chief Ex PHLD Mob 9672135914 Kossum Karkera Chief Ex PHLD Mob 9672135914 Kossum Karkera Chief Ex PHLD Mob 96722131914 None
126 Chamgadar Tiles Shaman Street Tiruvalli 62 Chamjadar Tiles Shaman Street Tiruvalli 62 Chamgadar Tiles Shaman Street Tiruvalli 62 Chamgadar Tiles Shaman Street Tirovalli 62 Chamgadar Tiles Shaman Street Tiruvalli 26 None
127 Pankaj Dhillion Brime Testiles Tel- 27854392 Pankaj Dhillion Brime Testile Tel- 27854392 Pankaj Dhillion Brime Testiles Ph- 27854392 Pankoj Dhillion Brime Testiles Tel- 27854392 Pankaj Dhillion Brime Testiles Tel- 27854392 None
128 Bob Baxklund (Dir) Pheonix Ltd. Ph-8297541 Bob Baxklund (Dir) Pheonix Ltd. Ph-8297541 Bob Backlund (Dir) Pheonix Ltd. Ph-8297541 Bob Baxklund (Dir) Pheenix Ltd. Ph-8297541 Bob Baxklund (Dir) Pheonix Ltd. Tel-8297541 None
129 Flickr Logos Bulls Outgate Orissa-32 Flickr Logos Bulls Outgates Orissa-32 Flickr Logos Bulls Outgate Orissa-32 Flickr Logos Bulls Outgate Orissa-23 Flickr Logos Bolls Outgate Orissa-32 None
130 Makamur Cakes Hilton Street-02 Shimoga-31 Makamur Cokes Hilton Street-02 Shimoga-31 Mokamur Cakes Hilton Street-02 Shimoga-31 Makamur Cakes Hilton Street-02 Shimoga-31 Makamur Cakes Hilton Street-02 Shimoga-31 None
131 Orix Mall Inertia Lane Ph-26834500 Orix Mall Inertia Lanes Ph-26834500 Orex Mall Inertia Lane Ph-26834500 Orix Mall Inertia Lane Ph-26834500 Orix Mall Inertia Lanes Ph-26834500 None
132 Baltar Hardware Pestwmji Road-14 Shahpur-06 Baltor Hardware Pestwmji Road-14 Shahpur-06 Baltar Hardware Pestwmji Road-14 Shahpur-06 Baltar Hardware Pestwmji Road-14 Shahpur-60 Baltar Hardware Pestwmji Road-41 Shahpur-06 None
133 Hussain Ekbaan Jama Swetts Tel-3578626 Hussain Ekban Jama Swetts Tel-3578626 Hussain Ekbaan Jame Swetts Tel-3578626 Hussain Ekbaan Jama Swetts Tel-3578626 Hussain Ekbaan Jama Swetts Ph-3578626 None
134 Janaki Travels Op Bekar Cinema S V R D. Dadar (W) Janaki Travels Op Bekar Cinema S V R D. Dadar (W) Janaki Travels Opp Bekar Cinema S V R D. Dadar (W) Janaki Travels Op Bekar Cinema S N R D. Dadar (W) Janoki Travels Op Bekar Cinema S V R D. Dadar (W) None
135 Sonal Ganjawala CB Constructions Fax- 2271349 Sonam Ganjawala CB Constructions Fax- 2271349 Sonal Ganjewala CB Constructions Fax- 2271349 Sonal Ganjawala BC Constructions Fax- 2271349 Sonal Ganjawala CB Constructions Fax- 2271349 None

Directions (136-140): The news item in each question below is to be classified into one of the following five areas:
(1) Social Issues
(2) Science and Health
(3) Politics
(4) Sports and
(5) Miscellaneous

136. It is time for profit of the 'business class', its Diwali!
(1) Social Issues
(2) Science and Health
(3) Politics
(4) Sports and
(5) Miscellaneous

137. The CSB Party will began its election campaign next week.
(1) Social Issues
(2) Science and Health
(3) Politics
(4) Sports and
(5) Miscellaneous

138. A study shows traumatic childhood leads to learning disorders.
(1) Social Issues
(2) Science and Health
(3) Politics
(4) Sports and
(5) Miscellaneous

139. A girl constantly being eve teased for over a year commits suicide.
(1) Social Issues
(2) Science and Health
(3) Politics
(4) Sports and
(5) Miscellaneous
140. India white washes Sri Lanka in the fair game of cricket.
(1) Social Issues
(2) Science and Health
(3) Politics
(4) Sports and
(5) Miscellaneous

Directions (141-145): Below in each question five words are given. Which of them will come at the third place if all of them are arranged alphabetically as in a dictionary?

141. (1) Revolve
(2) Rewind
(3) Rotate
(4) Restart
(5) Restore

142. (1) Marine
(2) Merchant
(3) Merchandise
(4) Machine
(5) Mechanic

143. (1) Cement
(2) Centenary
(3) Century
(4) Cigar
(5) Census

144. (1) Soluble
(2) Solvent
(3) Solution
(4) Solve
(5) Salt

145. (1) Mouse
(2) Mole
(3) Mould
(4) Mount
(5) Mountain









Directions (146-150): The letter group in each question is to be codified in the following codes:

Letters S P C N H J V X B K
Number 6 2 7 1 9 5 4 0 3 8
You have to find out which of the answers (1),(2), (3) or (4) has the correct coded form of the given letters and indicate it on the answer sheet. If none of the coded form is correct mark (5) as answer.

146. VSBCHNX
(1) 4673910
(2) 4637910
(3) 4673091
(4) 4670931
(5) None of these

147. HCKNPXJ
(1) 9781205
(2) 9871025
(3) 9718205
(4) 9871205
(5) None of these

148. JKPHVBN
(1) 5892431
(2) 5824931
(3) 5821439
(4) 5824391
(5) None of these

149. KXPJVNS
(1) 8025461
(2) 8024561
(3) 8025416
(4) 8024516
(5) None of these

150. CVHSXBP
(1) 749032
(2) 7496302
(3) 7490632
(4) 7496032

Andhra Bank Clerk Recruitment

Exam Name:
Clerical Recruitment
Conducted By:
Andhra Bank
Conducted in:
Dec 2007
Topic:
Part I (Reasoning)
Number of Questions:
50

1. In a certain code ROPE is written as $3%6 and RITE is written as $4#6. How is PORT written in that code?
(1) %4$#
(2) $3%#
(3) $64%
(4) %3$#
(5) None of these

2. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word KNIGHT, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three

3. Pointing to a photograph Nikita said 'She is the only grad daughter of my grandmother's daughter'. How is the girl in photograph related to Nikita?
(1) Sister
(2) Niece/ daughter
(3) Aunt
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these

4. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
(1) Pineapple
(2) Guava
(3) Grapes
(4) Papaya
(5) Pear

5. If the word STABLE all the consonants are replaced by the previous letter and all the vowels are replaced by the next letter which letter will be third from the left end?
(1) S
(2) B
(3) A
(4) K
(5) None of these

6. In a certain code HOUSE is written as FTVPI, how is CHAIR written in that code?
(1) DIBJS
(2) SBJID
(3) SHBGD
(4) SJBID
(5) None of these

7. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
(1) FH
(2) KM
(3) PR
(4) CE
(5) JM

8. If ' P Q' means 'P is wife of Q', 'P+Q' means 'P is father of Q' and 'P Q' means 'P is sister of Q' then in G H +R D, how is G related to D?
(1) Cannot be determined
(2) Mother
(3) Niece
(4) Aunt
(5) None of these

9. If the digits of the number 5726489 are arranged in ascending order, how many digits will remain at the same position?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three

10. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
(1) 17
(2) 19
(3) 23
(4) 29
(5) 27

11. How many meaningful words can be made from the letters AEHT, using each letter only once?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three

12. ' means 'x', $ means '+', # means ' ' and '©' means '-' then what is the value of«12. If '
360 # 24$ 56« 5© 48?
(1) 253
(2) 242
(3) 247
(4) 285
(5) None of these

13. If blue means pink, pink means green, green means yellow, yellow means red and red means white then what is the colour of turmeric?
(1) green
(2) yellow
(3) red
(4) pink
(5) None of these

14. If it is possible to make a meaningful word from the second, the third, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word PASSIONATELY using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be formed your answer is X and if more than one word can be formed your answer is Y.
(1) A
(2) E
(3) L
(4) X
(5) Y

15. In a row of children facing north Manish is fourth to the left of Suresh who is tenth from the left end. Nisha is second to the right of Suresh and eighth from the right end of the row. Total how many children are there in the row?
(1) 19
(2) 20
(3) 21
(4) 18
(5) None of these






Directions (16-20): In these questions symbols ©, #, «, $ and @ are used with different meanings as follows:
'A © B' means 'A is smaller than B'
'A # B' means 'A is either smaller than or equal to B'
'A « B' means 'A is greater than B'
'A $ B' means 'A is either greater than or equal to B'
'A @ B' means 'A is neither smaller than nor greater than B'
In each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find out which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/ are definitely true
Give answer (1) if only conclusion I is true.
Give answer (2) if only conclusion II is true.
Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or conclusion II is true.
Give answer (4) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true.
Give answer (5) if both conclusions I and II are true.

16. Statements: V#S, S©L, L©J
Conclusions: I. V © L
II. S © J

17. Statements: M#R, R©J, J#H
Conclusions: I. M #H
II. R © H

18. Statements: H$F, F@G, G«M
Conclusions: I. H «M
II. H «G

19. Statements: R©J, J «T,,T # L
Conclusions: I. R @ T
II. J @ l

20. Statements: W@T, T$K, K «F
Conclusions: I. W $ K
II. W @ K

Directions (21-25): In each question below there are three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the three given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Then decide which of the answers (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) is the correct answer and indicate it on the answer sheet.
Give answer (1) if only conclusion I is follows.
Give answer (2) if only conclusion II is follows
Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or II follows.
Give answer (4) if neither I nor II is follows.
Give answer (5) if both I and II follow.


21. Statements:
Some pens are books.
All books are pencils.
All pencils are jars.
Conclusions:
I. All books are jars.
II. Some pens are pencils.

22. Statements:
Some bowls are spoons
Some spoons are forks
All forks are plates.
Conclusions:
I. Some bowls are forks.
II. Some spoons are plates.

23. Statements:
Some bottles are jars.
All jars are buckets.
All buckets are tanks.
Conclusions:
I. All jars are tanks.
II. Some buckets are tanks.

24. Statements:
Some phones are mobiles.
Some mobiles are computers.
Some computers are keys.
Conclusions:
I. Some phones are keys.
II. Some computes are phones.

25. Statements:
All papers are files.
Some files are folders.
All folders are bags.
Conclusions:
I. Some files are bags.
II. Some papers are folders.

Directions (26-30): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II are given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and
Give answer (1) if the data is Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (2) if the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (3) if the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (4) if the data in both the Statement I and II are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (5) if the data in both the Statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

26. Lalita is in which direction with respect to Sangita?
I. Lalita is to the East of Prabha who is to the South of Sangita.
II. Vinita is to the North of Lalita who is to the East of Sangita.

27. What is the code for 'Play' in the code language?
I. In the code language 'play and dance' is written as 'ka to pe'
II. In the code language enjoy the dance' is written as 'pe jo ra'.

28. How many children are there in the class?
I. Vandana's rank in the class is five ranks below Nandini who is twenty fifth from the bottom.
II. Nandini's rank is seventeenth from the top.

29. Who is tallest among Neeta, Sudha, Radha, Maya and Geeta?
I. Radha is shorter than Neeta and Sudha but not shorter than Maya and Geeta.
II. Neeta is not the tallest.

30. How many sons does Ramesh have?
I. F is sister of H who is son of Ramesh.
II. R is brother of H.

Directions (31-35): These questions are based on the following letter / number/ symbol arrangement . Study it carefully and answer the questions that follow:
5 D G E « 7 9 $ F 1 6 R % L I A J 3 B # 4 @ K P 8 U M 2

31. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way on the basis of their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
(1) $9F
(2) R6%
(3) 8PU
(4) #B4
(5) 3BJ

32. If all the symbols are removed from the above arrangement which element will be third to the left of thirteenth from the left?
(1) L
(2) R
(3) 6
(4) I
(5) None of these

33. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement?
EDH 9 « 7 I$F ?
(1) 6RI
(2) %R6
(3) R16
(4) %6R
(5) None of these

34. Which element will be fifth to the right of ninth from the right end if all the numbers are removed from the above arrangement?
(1) K
(2) @
(3) P
(4) #
(5) None of these

35. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately followed by a consonant but not immediately preceded by a vowel?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three

Directions (36-40): These questions are based on the basis of following information. Study it carefully and answer the questions.
Eight executives J, K, L, M, N, O, P, and Q are sitting around a circular table for a meeting. J is second to the right of P who is third to the right of K. M is second to the left of O who sits between P and J, L is not a neighbour of K or N.

36. Who is to the immediate left of L?
(1) Q
(2) O
(3) K
(4) N
(5) None of these

37. Who is to the immediate left of K?
(1) N
(2) J
(3) Q
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these

38. Which of the following is the correct position of N?
(1) Second to the right of K
(2) To the immediate left of K
(3) To the immediate right of M
(4) To the immediate right of K
(5) None of these

39. Who is third to the right of P?
(1) L
(2) J
(3) Q
(4) N
(5) None of these

40. Which of the following groups of persons have the first person sitting between the other two?
(1) PJO
(2) OPJ
(3) OPM
(4) MPO
(5) None of these
Directions (41-50): In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?